CompTIA SY0-701 Cert Guide PDF 100% Cover Real Exam Questions
Pass SY0-701 Exam - Real Questions and Answers
NEW QUESTION # 91
An administrator was notified that a user logged in remotely after hours and copied large amounts of data to a personal device.
Which of the followingbestdescribes the user's activity?
- A. External audit
- B. Insider threat
- C. Penetration testing
- D. Phishing campaign
Answer: B
Explanation:
An insider threat is a security risk that originates from within the organization, such as an employee, contractor, or business partner, who has authorized access to the organization's data and systems. An insider threat can be malicious, such as stealing, leaking, or sabotaging sensitive data, or unintentional, such as falling victim to phishing or social engineering. An insider threat can cause significant damage to the organization's reputation, finances, operations, and legal compliance. The user's activity of logging in remotely after hours and copying large amounts of data to a personal device is an example of a malicious insider threat, as it violates the organization's security policies and compromises the confidentiality and integrity of the data. References = Insider Threats - CompTIA Security+ SY0-701: 3.2, video at 0:00; CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 133.
NEW QUESTION # 92
While troubleshooting a firewall configuration, a technician determines that a "deny any" policy should be added to the bottom of the ACL. The technician updates the policy, but the new policy causes several company servers to become unreachable.
Which of the following actions would prevent this issue?
- A. Testing the policy in a non-production environment before enabling the policy in the production network
- B. Including an 'allow any1 policy above the 'deny any* policy
- C. Disabling any intrusion prevention signatures on the 'deny any* policy prior to enabling the new policy
- D. Documenting the new policy in a change request and submitting the request to change management
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
A firewall policy is a set of rules that defines what traffic is allowed or denied on a network. A firewall policy should be carefully designed and tested before being implemented, as a misconfigured policy can cause network disruptions or security breaches. A common best practice is to test the policy in a non-production environment, such as a lab or a simulation, before enabling the policy in the production network. This way, the technician can verify the functionality and performance of the policy, and identify and resolve any issues or conflicts, without affecting the live network. Testing the policy in a non-production environment would prevent the issue of the 'deny any' policy causing several company servers to become unreachable, as the technician would be able to detect and correct the problem before applying the policy to the production network.
Documenting the new policy in a change request and submitting the request to change management is a good practice, but it would not prevent the issue by itself. Change management is a process that ensures that any changes to the network are authorized, documented, and communicated, but it does not guarantee that the changes are error-free or functional. The technician still needs to test the policy before implementing it.
Disabling any intrusion prevention signatures on the 'deny any' policy prior to enabling the new policy would not prevent the issue, and it could reduce the security of the network. Intrusion prevention signatures are patterns that identify malicious or unwanted traffic, and allow the firewall to block or alert on such traffic.
Disabling these signatures would make the firewall less effective in detecting and preventing attacks, and it would not affect the reachability of the company servers.
Including an 'allow any' policy above the 'deny any' policy would not prevent the issue, and it would render the 'deny any' policy useless. A firewall policy is processed from top to bottom, and the first matching rule is applied. An 'allow any' policy would match any traffic and allow it to pass through the firewall, regardless of the source, destination, or protocol. This would negate the purpose of the 'deny any' policy, which is to block any traffic that does not match any of the previous rules. Moreover, an 'allow any' policy would create a security risk, as it would allow any unauthorized or malicious traffic to enter or exit the network. References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 204-205; Professor Messer's CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 2.1 - Network Security Devices, 8:00 - 10:00.
NEW QUESTION # 93
Which of the following is used to validate a certificate when it is presented to a user?
- A. CA
- B. CRC
- C. CSR
- D. OCSP
Answer: D
Explanation:
OCSP stands for Online Certificate Status Protocol. It is a protocol that allows applications to check the revocation status of a certificate in real-time. It works by sending a query to an OCSP responder, which is a server that maintains a database of revoked certificates. The OCSP responder returns a response that indicates whether the certificate is valid, revoked, or unknown. OCSP is faster and more efficient than downloading and parsing Certificate Revocation Lists (CRLs), which are large files that contain the serial numbers of all revoked certificates issued by a Certificate Authority (CA).
References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide:
Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 337 1
NEW QUESTION # 94
A business received a small grant to migrate its infrastructure to an off-premises solution. Which of the following should be considered first?
- A. Ability of engineers
- B. Cost of implementation
- C. Security of architecture
- D. Security of cloud providers
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Security of architecture is the process of designing and implementing a secure infrastructure that meets the business objectives and requirements. Security of architecture should be considered first when migrating to an off-premises solution, such as cloud computing, because it can help to identify and mitigate the potential risks and challenges associated with the migration, such as data security, compliance, availability, scalability, and performance. Security of architecture is different from security of cloud providers, which is the process of evaluating and selecting a trustworthy and reliable cloud service provider that can meet the security and operational needs of the business. Security of architecture is also different from cost of implementation, which is the amount of money required to migrate and maintain the infrastructure in the cloud. Security of architecture is also different from ability of engineers, which is the level of skill and knowledge of the IT staff who are responsible for the migration and management of the cloud infrastructure. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 3491
NEW QUESTION # 95
Which of the following is used to quantitatively measure the criticality of a vulnerability?
- A. CVSS
- B. CVE
- C. CIA
- D. CERT
Answer: A
Explanation:
CVSS stands for Common Vulnerability Scoring System, which is a framework that provides a standardized way to assess and communicate the severity and risk of vulnerabilities. CVSS uses a set of metrics and formulas to calculate a numerical score ranging from 0 to 10, where higher scores indicate higher criticality.
CVSS can help organizations prioritize remediation efforts and compare vulnerabilities across different systems and vendors. The other options are not used to measure the criticality of a vulnerability, but rather to identify, classify, or report them. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 39
NEW QUESTION # 96
Which of the following is used to add extra complexity before using a one-way data transformation algorithm?
- A. Steganography
- B. Salting
- C. Data masking
- D. Key stretching
Answer: B
Explanation:
Salting is the process of adding extra random data to a password or other data before applying a one-way data transformation algorithm, such as a hash function. Salting increases the complexity and randomness of the input data, making it harder for attackers to guess or crack the original data using precomputed tables or brute force methods. Salting also helps prevent identical passwords fromproducing identical hash values, which could reveal the passwords to attackers who have access to the hashed data. Salting is commonly used to protect passwords stored in databases or transmitted over networks. References = Passwords technical overview Encryption, hashing, salting - what's the difference?
Salt (cryptography)
NEW QUESTION # 97
A security analyst scans a company's public network and discovers a host is running a remote desktop that can be used to access the production network. Which of the following changes should the security analyst recommend?
- A. Setting up a VPN and placing the jump server inside the firewall
- B. Changing the remote desktop port to a non-standard number
- C. Using a proxy for web connections from the remote desktop server
- D. Connecting the remote server to the domain and increasing the password length
Answer: A
Explanation:
A VPN is a virtual private network that creates a secure tunnel between two or more devices over a public network. A VPN can encrypt and authenticate the data, as well as hide the IP addresses and locations of the devices. A jump server is a server that acts as an intermediary between a user and a target server, such as a production server. A jump server can provide an additional layer of security and access control, as well as logging and auditing capabilities. A firewall is a device or software that filters and blocks unwanted network traffic based on predefined rules. A firewall can protect the internal network from external threats and limit the exposure of sensitive services and ports. A security analyst should recommend setting up a VPN and placing the jump server inside the firewall to improve the security of the remote desktop access to the production network. This way, the remote desktop service will not be exposed to the public network, and only authorized users with VPN credentials can access the jump server and then the production server. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 8: Secure Protocols and Services, page
382-383 1; Chapter 9: Network Security, page 441-442 1
NEW QUESTION # 98
Which of the following is required for an organization to properly manage its restore process in the event of system failure?
- A. RPO
- B. DRP
- C. SDLC
- D. IRP
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
A disaster recovery plan (DRP) is a set of policies and procedures that aim to restore the normal operations of an organization in the event of a system failure, natural disaster, or other emergency. A DRP typically includes the following elements:
A risk assessment that identifies the potential threats and impacts to the organization's critical assets and processes.
A business impact analysis that prioritizes the recovery of the most essential functions and data.
A recovery strategy that defines the roles and responsibilities of the recovery team, the resources and tools needed, and the steps to follow to restore the system.
A testing and maintenance plan that ensures the DRP is updated and validated regularly. A DRP is required for an organization to properly manage its restore process in the event of system failure, as it provides a clear and structured framework for recovering from a disaster and minimizing the downtime and data loss. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 7: Resilience and Recovery, page 325.
NEW QUESTION # 99
An administrator notices that several users are logging in from suspicious IP addresses. After speaking with the users, the administrator determines that the employees were not logging in from those IP addresses and resets the affected users' passwords. Which of the following should the administrator implement to prevent this type of attack from succeeding in the future?
- A. Permissions assignment
- B. Access management
- C. Multifactor authentication
- D. Password complexity
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is A because multifactor authentication (MFA) is a method of verifying a user's identity by requiring more than one factor, such as something the user knows (e.g., password), something the user has (e.g., token), or something the user is (e.g., biometric). MFA can prevent unauthorized access even if the user's password is compromised, as the attacker would need to provide another factor to log in. The other options are incorrect because they do not address the root cause of the attack, which is weak authentication.
Permissions assignment (B) is the process of granting or denying access to resources based on the user's role or identity. Access management is the process of controlling who can access what and under what conditions. Password complexity (D) is the requirement of using strong passwords that are hard to guess or crack, but it does not prevent an attacker from using a stolen password. References = You can learn more about multifactor authentication and other security concepts in the following resources:
CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 1: General Security Concepts1 Professor Messer's CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 1.2: Security Concepts2 Multi-factor Authentication - SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 2.43 TOTAL: CompTIA Security+ Cert (SY0-701) | Udemy, Section 3: Identity and Access Management, Lecture 15: Multifactor Authentication4 CompTIA Security+ Certification SY0-601: The Total Course [Video], Chapter 3: Identity and Account Management, Section 2: Enabling Multifactor Authentication5
NEW QUESTION # 100
A company's legal department drafted sensitive documents in a SaaS application and wants to ensure the documents cannot be accessed by individuals in high-risk countries. Which of the following is the most effective way to limit this access?
- A. Data masking
- B. Geolocation policy
- C. Data sovereignty regulation
- D. Encryption
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
A geolocation policy is a policy that restricts or allows access to data or resources based on the geographic location of the user or device. A geolocation policy can be implemented using various methods, such as IP address filtering, GPS tracking, or geofencing. A geolocation policy can help the company's legal department to prevent unauthorized access to sensitive documents from individuals in high-risk countries12.
The other options are not effective ways to limit access based on location:
Data masking: This is a technique of obscuring or replacing sensitive data with fictitious or anonymized data. Data masking can protect the privacy and confidentiality of data, but it does not prevent access to data based on location3.
Encryption: This is a process of transforming data into an unreadable format using a secret key or algorithm. Encryption can protect the integrity and confidentiality of data, but it does not prevent access to data based on location. Encryption can also be bypassed by attackers who have the decryption key or method4.
Data sovereignty regulation: This is a set of laws or rules that govern the storage, processing, and transfer of data within a specific jurisdiction or country. Data sovereignty regulation can affect the availability and compliance of data, but it does not prevent access to data based on location. Data sovereignty regulation can also vary depending on the country or region.
References = 1: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 972: Account Policies - SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 3.7, video by Professor Messer3: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 1004: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 101. : CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 102.
NEW QUESTION # 101
A company's marketing department collects, modifies, and stores sensitive customer data. The infrastructure team is responsible for securing the data while in transit and at rest. Which of the following data roles describes the customer?
- A. Custodian
- B. Processor
- C. Owner
- D. Subject
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
According to the CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, data subjects are the individuals whose personal data is collected, processed, or stored by an organization. Data subjects have certain rights and expectations regarding how their data is handled, such as the right to access, correct, delete, or restrict their data. Data subjects are different from data owners, who are the individuals or entities that have the authority and responsibility to determine how data is classified, protected, and used. Data subjects are also different from data processors, who are the individuals or entities that perform operations on data on behalf of the data owner, such as collecting, modifying, storing, or transmitting data. Data subjects are also different from data custodians, who are the individuals or entities that implement the security controls and procedures specified by the data owner to protect data while in transit and at rest.
ReferencesCompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 2: Data Security, page 511
NEW QUESTION # 102
An organization's internet-facing website was compromised when an attacker exploited a buffer overflow.
Which of the following should the organization deploy tobestprotect against similar attacks in the future?
- A. TLS
- B. WAF
- C. SD-WAN
- D. NGFW
Answer: B
Explanation:
A buffer overflow is a type of software vulnerability that occurs when an application writes more data to a memory buffer than it can hold, causing the excess data to overwrite adjacent memory locations. This can lead to unexpected behavior, such as crashes, errors, or code execution. A buffer overflow can be exploited by an attacker to inject malicious code or commands into the application, which can compromise the security and functionality of the system. An organization's internet-facing website was compromised when an attacker exploited a buffer overflow. To best protect against similar attacks in the future, the organization should deploy a web application firewall (WAF). A WAF is a type of firewall that monitors and filters the traffic between a web application and the internet. A WAF can detect and block common web attacks, such as buffer overflows, SQL injections, cross-site scripting (XSS), and more. A WAF can also enforce security policies and rules, such as input validation, output encoding, and encryption. A WAF can provide a layer of protection for the web application, preventing attackers from exploiting its vulnerabilities and compromising its data. References = Buffer Overflows - CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 - 2.3, Web Application Firewalls - CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 - 2.4, [CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition]
NEW QUESTION # 103
A security manager created new documentation to use in response to various types of security incidents.
Which of the following is the next step the manager should take?
- A. Review the documents' data classification policy.
- B. Set the maximum data retention policy.
- C. Securely store the documents on an air-gapped network.
- D. Conduct a tabletop exercise with the team.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A tabletop exercise is a simulated scenario that tests the effectiveness of a security incident response plan. It involves gathering the relevant stakeholders and walking through the steps of the plan, identifying any gaps or issues that need to be addressed. A tabletop exercise is a good way to validate the documentation created by the security manager and ensure that the team is prepared for various types of security incidents.
References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 6: Risk Management, page 2841. CompTIA Security+ Certification Kit: Exam SY0-701, 7th Edition, Chapter 6: Risk Management, page 2842.
NEW QUESTION # 104
Which of the following is the best reason to complete an audit in a banking environment?
- A. Service-level requirement
- B. Regulatory requirement
- C. Self-assessment requirement
- D. Organizational change
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
A regulatory requirement is a mandate imposed by a government or an authority that must be followed by an organization or an individual. In a banking environment, audits are often required by regulators to ensure compliance with laws, standards, and policies related to security, privacy, and financial reporting. Audits help to identify and correct any gaps or weaknesses in the security posture and the internal controls of the organization.
References:
Official CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), page 507
Security+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications 2
NEW QUESTION # 105
A security analyst reviews domain activity logs and notices the following:
Which of the following is thebestexplanation for what the security analyst has discovered?
- A. An attacker is attempting to brute force ismith's account.
- B. Ransomware has been deployed in the domain.
- C. A keylogger is installed on [smith's workstation
- D. The user jsmith's account has been locked out.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Brute force is a type of attack that tries to guess the password or other credentials of a user account by using a large number of possible combinations. An attacker can use automated toolsor scripts to perform a brute force attack and gain unauthorized access to the account. The domain activity logs show that the user ismith has failed to log in 10 times in a row within a short period of time, which is a strong indicator of a brute force attack. The logs also show that the source IP address of the failed logins is different from the usual IP address of ismith, which suggests that the attacker is using a different device or location to launch the attack. The security analyst should take immediate action to block the attacker's IP address, reset ismith's password, and notify ismith of the incident. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 1, page 14. CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 1.1, page 2. Threat Actors and Attributes - SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 1.1
NEW QUESTION # 106
Which of the following roles, according to the shared responsibility model, is responsible for securing the company's database in an IaaS model for a cloud environment?
- A. Cloud provider
- B. DBA
- C. Client
- D. Third-party vendor
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
According to the shared responsibility model, the client and the cloud provider have different roles and responsibilities for securing the cloud environment, depending on the service model. In an IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) model, the cloud provider is responsible for securing the physical infrastructure, such as the servers, storage, and network devices, while the client is responsible for securing the operating systems, applications, and data that run on the cloud infrastructure. Therefore, the client is responsible for securing the company's database in an IaaS model for a cloud environment, as the database is an application that stores data. The client can use various security controls, such as encryption, access control, backup, and auditing, to protect the database from unauthorized access, modification, or loss. The third-party vendor and the DBA (Database Administrator) are not roles defined by the shared responsibility model, but they may be involved in the implementation or management of the database security. References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 263-264; Professor Messer's CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 3.1 - Cloud and Virtualization, 5:00 - 7:40.
NEW QUESTION # 107
A security analyst is reviewing alerts in the SIEM related to potential malicious network traffic coming from an employee's corporate laptop. The security analyst has determined that additional data about the executable running on the machine is necessary to continue the investigation. Which of the following logs should the analyst use as a data source?
- A. Application
- B. Network
- C. IPS/IDS
- D. Endpoint
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
An endpoint log is a file that contains information about the activities and events that occur on an end-user device, such as a laptop, desktop, tablet, or smartphone. Endpoint logs can provide valuable data for security analysts, such as the processes running on the device, the network connections established, the files accessed or modified, the user actions performed, and the applications installed or updated. Endpoint logs can also record the details of any executable files running on the device, such as the name, path, size, hash, signature, and permissions of the executable.
An application log is a file that contains information about the events that occur within a software application, such as errors, warnings, transactions, or performance metrics. Application logs can help developers and administrators troubleshoot issues, optimize performance, and monitor user behavior. However, application logs may not provide enough information about the executable files running on the device, especially if they are malicious or unknown.
An IPS/IDS log is a file that contains information about the network traffic that is monitored and analyzed by an intrusion prevention system (IPS) or an intrusion detection system (IDS). IPS/IDS logs can help security analysts identify and block potential attacks, such as exploit attempts, denial-of-service (DoS) attacks, or malicious scans. However, IPS/IDS logs may not provide enough information about the executable files running on the device, especially if they are encrypted, obfuscated, or use legitimate protocols.
A network log is a file that contains information about the network activity and communication that occurs between devices, such as IP addresses, ports, protocols, packets, or bytes. Network logs can help security analysts understand the network topology, traffic patterns, and bandwidth usage. However, network logs may not provide enough information about the executable files running on the device, especially if they are hidden, spoofed, or use proxy servers.
Therefore, the best log type to use as a data source for additional information about the executable running on the machine is the endpoint log, as it can provide the most relevant and detailed data about the executable file and its behavior.
References = https://www.crowdstrike.com/cybersecurity-101/observability/application-log/
https://owasp.org/www-project-proactive-controls/v3/en/c9-security-logging
NEW QUESTION # 108
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