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NEW QUESTION # 23
Which of the following is a more efficient form of public key cryptography as it demands less computational power and offers more security per bit?
- A. Secret Key Cryptography
- B. Digital Signature Standard
- C. Elliptic Curve Cryptography
- D. Diffie-Hellman Key Agreement
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Elliptic curve cryptography (ECC) is a more efficient form of public key cryptography as it demands less computational power and offers more security per bit. ECC is based on the mathematical properties of elliptic curves, which are curves that have a special shape that makes them suitable for cryptography. ECC can achieve the same level of security as other public key algorithms with much smaller key sizes, which reduces storage and bandwidth requirements.
NEW QUESTION # 24
Which of the following are politically motivated hackers who target specific individuals or organizations to achieve various ideological ends?
- A. Malware researchers
- B. Script kiddies
- C. Cybercriminals
- D. Hacktivists
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Hacktivists are politically motivated hackers who target specific individuals or organizations to achieve various ideological ends. They may use various methods such as defacing websites, launching denial-of-service attacks, leaking confidential information, or spreading propaganda to advance their causes or protest against perceived injustices.
NEW QUESTION # 25
Which of the following is the MOST cost-effective technique for implementing network security for human resources (HR) desktops and internal laptop users in an organization?
- A. Virtual local area network
- B. Fortified demilitarized zone
- C. Layer 3 virtual private network
- D. Software defined perimeter
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The MOST cost-effective technique for implementing network security for human resources (HR) desktops and internal laptop users in an organization is using a virtual local area network (VLAN). A VLAN is a logical grouping of network devices that share the same broadcast domain regardless of their physical location or connection. A VLAN can enhance network security by isolating different types of traffic or users from each other and applying different security policies or rules based on the VLAN membership. For example, an organization can create a VLAN for HR desktops and internal laptop users that restricts their access to only HR-related systems or resources. A VLAN can also reduce network costs by saving bandwidth, improving performance, and simplifying management.
NEW QUESTION # 26
What would be an IS auditor's BEST response to an IT managers statement that the risk associated with the use of mobile devices in an organizational setting is the same as for any other device?
- A. The risk associated with mobile devices cannot be mitigated with similar controls for workstations.
- B. The ability to wipe mobile devices and disable connectivity adequately mitigates additional
- C. Replication of privileged access and the greater likelihood of physical loss increases risk levels.
- D. The risk associated with mobile devices is less than that of other devices and systems.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The BEST response to an IT manager's statement that the risk associated with the use of mobile devices in an organizational setting is the same as for any other device is that replication of privileged access and the greater likelihood of physical loss increases risk levels. Mobile devices pose unique risks to an organization due to their portability, connectivity, and functionality. Mobile devices may store or access sensitive data or systems that require privileged access, which can be compromised if the device is lost, stolen, or hacked. Mobile devices also have a higher chance of being misplaced or taken by unauthorized parties than other devices.
NEW QUESTION # 27
Strong data loss prevention (DLP) solutions help protect information in which of the following states?
- A. At rest, in transit and in use
- B. Public restricted, and confidential
- C. Operating system application and database levels
- D. Data sent, data received, and data deleted
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Strong data loss prevention (DLP) solutions help protect information in all states: at rest, in transit and in use.
This is because DLP solutions are technologies or tools that help to prevent unauthorized or accidental disclosure, modification, or deletion of sensitive or confidential information by users or applications. DLP solutions help to protect information in all states, by applying different types of controls or mechanisms depending on the state of the information. For example, DLP solutions can protect information at rest by encrypting or masking the data stored on devices or media; protect information in transit by inspecting or filtering the data transmitted over networks or channels; and protect information in use by restricting or monitoring the access or usage of the data by users or applications. The other options are not states that strong data loss prevention (DLP) solutions help protect information in, but rather different levels (B), classifications C, or actions (D) that are related to information security.
NEW QUESTION # 28
A healthcare organization recently acquired another firm that outsources its patient information processing to a third-party Software as a Service (SaaS) provider. From a regulatory perspective, which of the following is MOST important for the healthcare organization to determine?
- A. Physical location of the data
- B. Cybersecurity risk assessment methodology
- C. Encryption algorithms used to encrypt the data
- D. Incident escalation procedures
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
From a regulatory perspective, the MOST important thing for the healthcare organization to determine when outsourcing its patient information processing to a third-party Software as a Service (SaaS) provider is the incident escalation procedures. This is because incident escalation procedures define how security incidents involving patient information are reported, communicated, escalated, and resolved between the healthcare organization and the SaaS provider. This is essential for complying with regulatory requirements such as HIPAA, which mandate timely notification and response to breaches of protected health information. The other options are not as important as incident escalation procedures from a regulatory perspective, because they either relate to technical aspects that may not affect compliance (A, B), or operational aspects that may not affect patient information security (D).
NEW QUESTION # 29
Which of the following is a limitation of intrusion detection systems (IDS)?
- A. Limited evidence on intrusive activity
- B. Lack of Interface with system tools
- C. Weak passwords for the administration console
- D. Application-level vulnerabilities
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
A limitation of intrusion detection systems (IDS) is that they cannot detect application-level vulnerabilities. An IDS is a tool that monitors network traffic or system activity and alerts on any suspicious or malicious events.
However, an IDS cannot analyze the logic or functionality of applications and identify vulnerabilities such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting, or broken authentication.
NEW QUESTION # 30
Which control mechanism is used to detect the unauthorized modification of key configuration settings?
- A. URL filtering
- B. Sandboxing
- C. Whitelisting
- D. File integrity
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The control mechanism that is used to detect the unauthorized modification of key configuration settings is file integrity. File integrity is the property of ensuring that files are not altered or corrupted by unauthorized users or processes. File integrity can be monitored by using tools that compare the current state of files with a baseline or checksum and alert on any changes.
NEW QUESTION # 31
Which of the following is MOST critical to guiding and managing security activities throughout an organization to ensure objectives are met?
- A. Allocating a significant amount of budget to security investments
- B. Adopting industry security standards and frameworks
- C. Establishing metrics to measure and monitor security performance
- D. Conducting annual security awareness training for all employees
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The MOST critical thing to guiding and managing security activities throughout an organization to ensure objectives are met is establishing metrics to measure and monitor security performance. This is because metrics provide quantifiable and objective data that can be used to evaluate the effectiveness and efficiency of security activities, as well as identify gaps and areas for improvement. Metrics also enable communication and reporting of security performance to stakeholders, such as senior management, board members, auditors, regulators, customers, etc. The other options are not as critical as establishing metrics, because they either involve spending money without knowing the return on investment (A), adopting standards without customizing them to fit the organization's context and needs (B), or conducting training without assessing its impact on behavior change (D).
NEW QUESTION # 32
Which of the following should an IS auditor do FIRST to ensure cyber security-related legal and regulatory requirements are followed by an organization?
- A. Review the most recent legal and regulatory audit report conducted by an independent party.
- B. Determine if the cybersecurity program is mapped to relevant legal and regulatory requirements.
- C. Determine if there is a formal process to review changes in legal and regulatory requirements.
D Obtain a list of relevant legal and regulatory requirements.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The FIRST thing that an IS auditor should do to ensure cyber security-related legal and regulatory requirements are followed by an organization is to determine if the cybersecurity program is mapped to relevant legal and regulatory requirements. This is because mapping the cybersecurity program to relevant legal and regulatory requirements helps to ensure that the organization has identified and addressed all the applicable laws and regulations that affect its cybersecurity posture, such as data protection, privacy, breach notification, etc. Mapping the cybersecurity program to relevant legal and regulatory requirements also helps to evaluate the alignment and compliance of the organization's cybersecurity policies, procedures, controls, and practices with the legal and regulatory requirements. The other options are not the first thing that an IS auditor should do to ensure cyber security-related legal and regulatory requirements are followed by an organization, but rather follow after determining if the cybersecurity program is mapped to relevant legal and regulatory requirements, such as reviewing the most recent legal and regulatory audit report (B), determining if there is a formal process to review changes in legal and regulatory requirements C, or obtaining a list of relevant legal and regulatory requirements (D).
NEW QUESTION # 33
Which of the following is the MOST serious consequence of mobile device loss or theft?
- A. Cost of purchasing replacement devices
- B. Physical damage to devices
- C. Compromise of transient data
- D. Installation of unauthorized applications
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The MOST serious consequence of mobile device loss or theft is the compromise of transient data. Transient data is data that is temporarily stored or processed on a mobile device, such as cached data, cookies, browsing history, passwords, or session tokens. Transient data can reveal sensitive information about the user or the organization and can be exploited by attackers to gain access to other systems or networks.
NEW QUESTION # 34
An IS auditor has learned that a cloud service provider has not adequately secured its application programming interface (API). Which of the following is MOST important for the auditor to consider in an assessment of the potential risk factors?
- A. Confidentiality, integrity, and availability
- B. Identity spoofing and phishing
- C. Resource contention
- D. Denial of service
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The MOST important thing for an IS auditor to consider in an assessment of the potential risk factors when a cloud service provider has not adequately secured its application programming interface (API) is the impact on the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the cloud service. An API is a set of rules and protocols that allows communication and interaction between different software components or systems. An API is often used by cloud service providers to enable customers to access and manage their cloud resources and services.
However, if an API is not adequately secured, it can expose the cloud service provider and its customers to various threats, such as unauthorized access, data breaches, tampering, denial-of-service attacks, or malicious code injection.
NEW QUESTION # 35
Which of the following is the GREATEST drawback when using the AICPA/CICA Trust Sen/ices to evaluate a cloud service provider?
- A. Incompatibility with cloud service business model
- B. Inability to issue SOC 2 or SOC 3 reports
- C. Lack of specificity m the principles
- D. Omission of confidentiality in the criteria
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The GREATEST drawback when using the AICPA/CICA Trust Services to evaluate a cloud service provider is the lack of specificity in the principles. This is because the AICPA/CICA Trust Services are a set of principles and criteria that provide guidance for evaluating and reporting on controls over information systems and services. However, the principles and criteria are very broad and generic, and do not address the specific risks and challenges that are associated with cloud services, such as data sovereignty, multi-tenancy, portability, etc. The other options are not drawbacks when using the AICPA/CICA Trust Services to evaluate a cloud service provider, but rather different aspects or benefits of using the AICPA/CICA Trust Services to evaluate a cloud service provider, such as compatibility (A), confidentiality C, or reporting (D).
NEW QUESTION # 36
Which of the following BEST characterizes security mechanisms for mobile devices?
- A. Inadequate for organizational use
- B. Easy to control through mobile device management
- C. Configurable and reliable across device types
- D. Comparatively weak relative to workstations
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The BEST characteristic that describes security mechanisms for mobile devices is easy to control through mobile device management. This is because mobile device management is a technique that allows organizations to centrally manage and secure mobile devices, such as smartphones, tablets, laptops, etc., that are used by their employees or customers. Mobile device management helps to enforce security policies, configure settings, install applications, monitor usage, wipe data, etc., on mobile devices remotely and efficiently. The other options are not characteristics that describe security mechanisms for mobile devices, but rather different aspects or factors that affect security mechanisms for mobile devices, such as weakness (B), inadequacy C, or reliability (D).
NEW QUESTION # 37
Which of the following is EASIEST for a malicious attacker to detect?
- A. Ability to tamper with mobile code
- B. Use of insufficient cryptography
- C. Susceptibility to reverse engineering
- D. Insecure storage of sensitive data
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The EASIEST thing for a malicious attacker to detect is the susceptibility to reverse engineering. Reverse engineering is the process of analyzing the code or functionality of an application to understand its structure, logic, or design. Reverse engineering can be used by attackers to discover vulnerabilities, bypass security mechanisms, or modify the application's behavior. Mobile applications are often susceptible to reverse engineering because they are distributed in binary form and can be easily decompiled or disassembled.
NEW QUESTION # 38
The "recover" function of the NISI cybersecurity framework is concerned with:
- A. taking appropriate action to contain and eradicate a security incident.
- B. planning for resilience and timely repair of compromised capacities and service.
- C. allocating costs incurred as part of the implementation of cybersecurity measures.
- D. identifying critical data to be recovered m case of a security incident.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The "recover" function of the NIST cybersecurity framework is concerned with planning for resilience and timely repair of compromised capacities and service. This is because the recover function helps organizations to restore normal operations as quickly as possible after a cybersecurity incident, while also learning from the incident and improving their security posture. The other options are not part of the recover function, but rather belong to the identify (B), respond C, or protect (D) functions.
NEW QUESTION # 39
Which of the following is the BEST indication of mature third-party vendor risk management for an organization?
- A. The organization's security program follows the thud party's security program.
- B. The third party's security program Mows the organization s security program.
- C. The third party maintains annual assessments of control effectiveness.
- D. The organization maintains vendor security assessment checklists.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The BEST indication of mature third-party vendor risk management for an organization is that the organization maintains vendor security assessment checklists. This is because vendor security assessment checklists help the organization to evaluate and monitor the security posture and performance of their third-party vendors, based on predefined criteria and standards. Vendor security assessment checklists also help the organization to identify and mitigate any gaps or issues in the vendor's security controls or processes.
The other options are not as indicative of mature third-party vendor risk management for an organization, because they either involve following or mimicking the security program of either party without considering their own needs or risks (A, D), or relying on the vendor's self-assessment without independent verification or validation C.
NEW QUESTION # 40
Which of the following is the GREATEST advantage of using a virtual private network (VPN) over dedicated circuits and dial-in servers?
- A. It is more cost effective.
- B. It is more secure
- C. It is higher speed.
- D. It is more reliable
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The GREATEST advantage of using a virtual private network (VPN) over dedicated circuits and dial-in servers is that it is more cost effective. This is because a VPN is a technology that creates a secure and encrypted connection between a client and a server over an existing public network, such as the Internet. A VPN reduces the cost of establishing and maintaining a secure communication channel, as it does not require any additional hardware, software, or infrastructure, unlike dedicated circuits and dial-in servers, which require dedicated lines, modems, routers, switches, etc. The other options are not the greatest advantage of using a VPN over dedicated circuits and dial-in servers, because they either involve security (A), reliability (B), or speed C aspects that may not be significantly different or better than dedicated circuits and dial-in servers.
NEW QUESTION # 41
Which of the following provides the GREATEST assurance that data can be recovered and restored in a timely manner in the event of data loss?
- A. The recovery plan is executed during or after an event
- B. Data backups are available onsite for recovery.
- C. Backups of information are regularly tested.
- D. full data backup is performed daily.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The feature that provides the GREATEST assurance that data can be recovered and restored in a timely manner in the event of data loss is that backups of information are regularly tested. This is because testing backups helps to ensure that they are valid, complete, and usable, and that they can be restored within the expected time frame and without errors or corruption. Testing backups also helps to identify and resolve any issues or problems with the backup process, media, or software. The other options are not features that provide the greatest assurance that data can be recovered and restored in a timely manner in the event of data loss, but rather different aspects or factors that affect the backup process, such as availability (B), execution C, or frequency (D) of backups.
NEW QUESTION # 42
Which of the following is the GREATEST risk pertaining to sensitive data leakage when users set mobile devices to "always on" mode?
- A. A user's behavior pattern can be predicted.
- B. An adversary can predict a user's login credentials.
- C. Authorization tokens could be exploited.
- D. Mobile connectivity could be severely weakened.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The GREATEST risk pertaining to sensitive data leakage when users set mobile devices to "always on" mode is that authorization tokens could be exploited. Authorization tokens are pieces of data that are used to authenticate users and grant them access to certain resources or services. Authorization tokens are often stored on mobile devices to enable seamless and convenient access without requiring users to enter their credentials repeatedly. However, if users set their mobile devices to "always on" mode, they increase the risk of losing their devices or having them stolen by attackers. Attackers can then access the authorization tokens stored on the devices and use them to impersonate the users or access their sensitive data.
NEW QUESTION # 43
Which of the following backup procedure would only copy files that have changed since the last backup was made?
- A. Full backup
- B. Differential backup
- C. Daily backup
- D. Incremental backup
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The backup procedure that would only copy files that have changed since the last backup was made is an incremental backup. This is because an incremental backup is a type of backup that only copies the files that have been created or modified since the previous backup, whether it was a full or an incremental backup. An incremental backup helps to reduce the backup time and storage space, as well as the recovery time, as only the changed files need to be restored. The other options are not backup procedures that would only copy files that have changed since the last backup was made, but rather different types of backup procedures that copy files based on different criteria, such as daily backup (B), differential backup C, or full backup (D).
NEW QUESTION # 44
Which of the following contains the essential elements of effective processes and describes an improvement path considering quality and effectiveness?
- A. Balanced scorecard
- B. Capability maturity model integration
- C. COBIT 5
- D. 60 270042009
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The document that contains the essential elements of effective processes and describes an improvement path considering quality and effectiveness is Capability Maturity Model Integration (CMMI). This is because CMMI is a framework that defines five levels of process maturity, from initial to optimized, and provides best practices and guidelines for improving the quality and effectiveness of processes across different domains, such as software development, service delivery, or cybersecurity. The other options are not documents that contain the essential elements of effective processes and describe an improvement path considering quality and effectiveness, but rather different types of documents or tools that provide guidance or recommendations for implementing policies or controls, such as Balanced Scorecard (B), ISO 27004:2009 C, or COBIT 5 (D).
NEW QUESTION # 45
he MOST significant limitation of vulnerability scanning is the fact that modern scanners only detect:
- A. known vulnerabilities.
- B. unknown vulnerabilities.
- C. zero-day vulnerabilities.
- D. common vulnerabilities.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The MOST significant limitation of vulnerability scanning is the fact that modern scanners only detect known vulnerabilities. This is because vulnerability scanners rely on databases or repositories of known vulnerabilities, such as CVE (Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures), to compare and identify the weaknesses or flaws in systems or applications. Vulnerability scanners cannot detect unknown vulnerabilities, such as zero-day vulnerabilities, that have not been reported or disclosed yet, and may be exploited by attackers before they are patched or fixed. The other options are not the most significant limitation of vulnerability scanning, because they either involve detecting common (A), unknown (B), or zero-day (D) vulnerabilities, which are not the capabilities or limitations of modern scanners.
NEW QUESTION # 46
Which of the following is MOST important to ensure the successful implementation of continuous auditing?
- A. Budget for additional storage hardware
- B. Surplus processing capacity
- C. Top management support
- D. Budget for additional technical resources
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The MOST important factor to ensure the successful implementation of continuous auditing is top management support. This is because top management support helps to provide the vision, direction, and resources for implementing continuous auditing within the organization. Top management support also helps to overcome any resistance or challenges that may arise from implementing continuous auditing, such as cultural change, stakeholder buy-in, process reengineering, etc. Top management support also helps to ensure that the results and findings of continuous auditing are communicated and acted upon by the relevant decision-makers and stakeholders. The other options are not factors that are more important than top management support for ensuring the successful implementation of continuous auditing, but rather different aspects or benefits of continuous auditing, such as storage hardware (A), technical resources (B), or processing capacity (D).
NEW QUESTION # 47
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