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NEW QUESTION # 61
A 31-year-old nulligravid woman presents to your office after 5 months of attempting to get pregnant without success. Her menses are regular, and she is otherwise healthy. Her husband is healthy and has never fathered any children before. Which one of the following is the best next step?
- A. Advise her to adjust her diet and reduce her weight by 5%
- B. Reassure her and have her return after 12 months without conceiving
- C. Arrange a hysterosalpingography after her next menses
- D. Order a follicle-stimulating hormone level on day 3 of her cycle
- E. Send her husband for a semen analysis
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
Infertility is defined as the inability to conceive after 12 months of regular, unprotected intercourse in women under 35 years. Since she has been trying for only 5 months, reassurance is appropriate.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Gynecology:
"Investigations for infertility in women under 35 should begin after 12 months of attempting to conceive, unless other risk factors are present." MCCQE1 Objectives (Gynecology > 82-1: Infertility):
"Candidates must apply appropriate timing and indications for infertility investigations based on patient age and history." Earlier testing is not warranted here. Options A-D are part of the infertility work-up but not before 12 months.
NEW QUESTION # 62
A 42-year-old woman is admitted to the Intensive Care Unit with a massive pulmonary embolism. Her condition is stabilized with intubation, hydration, inotropic support, and intravenous administration of heparin. Her partner provides you with a list of her medications. A combination oral contraceptive pill was recently prescribed. She smokes tobacco cigarettes, and her BMI is 36. Which one of the following is the best next step?
- A. Inform the patient's partner that the oral contraceptive pill may have caused her condition
- B. Report the prescribing physician to the provincial or territorial medical regulatory authority
- C. Tell her partner that the physician should not have prescribed the oral contraceptive pill
- D. Discuss the case with the hospital ethics committee
- E. Advise the patient's partner to seek legal advice
Answer: A
Explanation:
Oral contraceptives increase the risk of thromboembolic events, particularly in patients with risk factors such as smoking and obesity. However, informing the patient's partner of potential contributing factors in a factual, non-judgmental manner is appropriate and does not imply fault.
Toronto Notes 2023 - ELOM, "Informed Consent and Risk Communication":
"Patients and families should be informed of all relevant information, including potential drug-related adverse events. Blame must not be assigned without full investigation." MCCQE1 Objectives (ELOM > 90-2: Physician-Patient Communication):
"Candidates must be able to communicate adverse outcomes factually, while respecting confidentiality and without prematurely assigning fault." Discussing the case with the ethics committee or reporting the prescribing doctor without context is premature and inappropriate (A, D). Telling the partner the physician was at fault (C) is speculative and unethical.
NEW QUESTION # 63
There are many expenses which are considered part of providing care to patients. Under Canadian legislation, which one of the following is an acceptable means of covering these costs?
- A. Collecting fees from patients for home visits.
- B. Offering rapid access to insured services for a fee.
- C. Collecting fees from patients who are seen after hours.
- D. Collecting fees from patients for uninsured services provided.
- E. Collecting annual fees from patients to supplement fees disbursed by the public payer for insured services.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Physicians in Canada may charge patients for uninsured services (e.g., completion of forms, cosmetic procedures, some travel-related vaccines), but they may not charge extra for insured services or preferential access. Doing so violates the Canada Health Act, which mandates accessibility and universality of insured services.
Toronto Notes 2023 - ELOM, Health Care System:
"Physicians may charge for uninsured services but may not charge block fees for insured services, nor can they charge for expedited access to insured services." MCCQE1 Objectives - ELOM > Health Policy and System:
"Candidates must recognize practices that violate the principles of publicly funded health care, including charging for insured services or access premiums." Option A is not permitted under law. Options B, D, and E involve insured services (e.g., home visits, after- hours care) and cannot be billed directly to patients.
NEW QUESTION # 64
An 84-year-old woman is brought by ambulance to the emergency department after she was found by a neighbour. She had fallen, sustained a hip fracture, and was unable to move for the past 2 days. After starting rehydration, she reports hip pain and numbness and tingling in both her legs. Physical examination reveals faint pulses in both legs and severely swollen lower legs that are painful to palpation. The urine in the Foley catheter bag seems to be darker than normal. Which one of the following is the best next step?
- A. Compartment pressure measurements of the lower legs.
- B. Myoglobin urine test.
- C. Bilateral Doppler ultrasonography of the legs.
- D. Bilateral angiography of the lower legs.
- E. Surgical fixation of the patient's hip fracture.
Answer: A
Explanation:
This patient presents with signs of acute compartment syndrome (pain out of proportion, paresthesia, pallor, swelling, decreased pulses, and dark urine indicating rhabdomyolysis). Measuring compartment pressures is the diagnostic test of choice to confirm the diagnosis and guide urgent surgical fasciotomy.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Orthopedics:
"Acute compartment syndrome should be suspected in any patient with severe extremity pain, swelling, sensory deficits, and tense compartments. Confirm with compartment pressure measurements. Fasciotomy is indicated if pressure is >30 mmHg or within 30 mmHg of diastolic pressure." MCCQE1 Objectives (Surgery > 51-2: Limb Trauma):
"Candidates must diagnose acute compartment syndrome and initiate appropriate surgical referral after confirming with pressure measurements." Angiography and Doppler studies assess vascular compromise but are not the first step in suspected compartment syndrome. Fixing the hip (C) and testing myoglobin (E) are not diagnostic steps.
NEW QUESTION # 65
You are on duty in the Emergency Department when 5 patients are brought in by ambulance after a high- speed motor vehicle collision. Which one of the following patients requires the most urgent medical care?
- A. A 72-year-old man with a history of myocardial infarction, with a blood pressure of 163/94 mm Hg, a heart rate of 92/min, and a capillary saturation of 95%
- B. A 4-year-old girl with a visibly displaced ankle fracture, in great pain, with normal distal pulses and normal vital signs
- C. A 32-year-old man with a swollen and angulated thigh, a blood pressure of 112/96 mm Hg, and a pulse of 122/min
- D. A 13-month-old child who is screaming constantly and for whom the triage nurse finds no obvious explanation
- E. A 23-year-old woman who lost consciousness for about 5 minutes and has a headache despite a normal neurological screening examination
Answer: C
Explanation:
The patient with the angulated thigh, hypotension relative to baseline, and tachycardia likely has a femoral shaft fracture with concealed hemorrhage. This poses an immediate risk of hypovolemic shock and requires urgent assessment and stabilization.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Emergency Medicine, "Trauma Triage and Prioritization":
"Patients with long bone fractures, especially femoral fractures, are at high risk for hemorrhage and should be prioritized for stabilization and hemorrhage control." MCCQE1 Objectives (Surgery > 51-1: Trauma):
"Candidates must prioritize trauma patients based on signs of instability or risk of deterioration, such as tachycardia and occult bleeding."
NEW QUESTION # 66
A 37-year-old woman diagnosed with schizophrenia comes to her family physician because she has been choking on her food lately. She has a history of mild spasmodic dysphonia. She was recently started on haloperidol for auditory hallucinations. Which one of the following is the best short-term management?
- A. Begin dantrolene
- B. Provide reassurance
- C. Arrange for an urgent laryngoscopy
- D. Change the haloperidol to quetiapine
- E. Start lorazepam
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
This patient is likely experiencing extrapyramidal symptoms (dysphagia/dystonia) due to haloperidol.
Switching to an atypical antipsychotic (like quetiapine), which has a lower risk of EPS, is appropriate.
Dysphagia in the context of antipsychotic use requires prompt medication review.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry, "Antipsychotics and Extrapyramidal Effects":
"Dysphagia can be a sign of extrapyramidal side effects. Consider switching to an atypical antipsychotic with lower EPS risk." MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 71-5: Antipsychotic Adverse Effects):
"Candidates must recognize and manage EPS, including drug-induced dysphagia." Dantrolene (C) is for neuroleptic malignant syndrome, not isolated dysphagia. Laryngoscopy (B) may be useful later but not first-line. Reassurance (D) is unsafe. Lorazepam (E) may help in dystonia but doesn't address the root cause.
NEW QUESTION # 67
You have been asked to develop a program in your hospital for people who are at the highest risk of death by suicide. The hospital administrator asks you to describe the types of patients they should expect in the program. Which one of the following groups is the most likely prominent demographic?
- A. Women aged 14 to 20 years who have histories of being abused and who are experiencing financial hardships
- B. Men aged 11 to 20 years who have histories of juvenile delinquency and narcotic use
- C. Patients of both sexes who have psychotic disorders
- D. Men aged 50 to 70 years who have limited social supports and alcohol use disorder
- E. Women aged 20 to 40 years who have cluster B personality disorders and experience relationship losses
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
Middle-aged to older men with social isolation and substance use disorders (especially alcohol) are among the highest-risk groups for completed suicide. They are less likely to seek help and often use more lethal methods.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry, "Suicide Risk Assessment":
"High-risk demographics include older men, social isolation, comorbid alcohol use, and chronic illness. These patients have the highest rates of completed suicide." MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 71-1: Suicide Risk):
"Candidates must recognize epidemiologic risk factors for completed suicide, including demographics and comorbidities." Although women and youth have higher rates of suicidal ideation and attempts, men over 50 have the highest completion rates.
NEW QUESTION # 68
A 28-year-old woman presents to the office in great distress because she has no money for groceries or rent.
She is a single mother of a 7-year-old girl. She has a history of gambling disorder. She has felt unable to cope for the last 3 months and has started gambling again. Today, she is crying, and she shares that her boyfriend became violent with her yesterday. Which one of the following is the highest priority for assessment?
- A. Define the extent of the patient's gambling disorder.
- B. Screen for recreational drug and alcohol use.
- C. Evaluate for depression.
- D. Investigate the patient's need for financial assistance.
- E. Determine the risk of violence to the patient and her child.
Answer: E
Explanation:
The highest priority is the immediate safety of the patient and her child. In the presence of domestic violence, risk assessment for harm or neglect must be conducted urgently, particularly since a child may be at risk.
Safety trumps psychiatric or social evaluations in triage.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry, "Crisis and Risk Assessment" Section:
"When intimate partner violence (IPV) is disclosed, it is critical to assess immediate safety and consider mandatory reporting, especially when children are involved." MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 79-6: Violence and Abuse):
"Candidates must assess for and respond to risk of harm in situations of domestic violence, especially when dependents are involved. This includes ensuring immediate safety and following legal obligations for child protection." Although the other concerns (e.g., gambling, depression, substance use, financial need) are valid, the presence of violence makes D the first and most urgent priority.
NEW QUESTION # 69
A 14-year-old girl, accompanied by her mother, presents to your office with a 3-month history of feeling
"dizzy." After you take an initial history, which one of the following is the most appropriate next step?
- A. Order a urine pregnancy test
- B. Obtain growth parameters and vital signs
- C. Interview the girl without the mother present
- D. Do a bedside glucometer reading
- E. Perform a detailed cardiac and neurological examination
Answer: C
Explanation:
In adolescents presenting with vague or potentially sensitive symptoms, it is critical to speak with them alone to obtain a complete and honest history, including mental health, sexual activity, substance use, and abuse screening.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Pediatrics, Adolescent Medicine:
"Private interviews are essential to obtain accurate histories in adolescents, especially when symptoms may have underlying psychosocial or reproductive causes." MCCQE1 Objectives - Pediatrics > Adolescent Health:
"Candidates must demonstrate adolescent-appropriate interviewing techniques, including private questioning to identify sensitive or risk-related concerns." Physical examination and pregnancy testing (A, B, D) may follow based on the private history. Vital signs (E) are standard but do not replace psychosocial assessment.
NEW QUESTION # 70
A 62-year-old woman is taken to the operating room for an elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Induction of anesthesia triggers a severe hypertensive crisis that ultimately resolves after administration of a 5 mg bolus of phentolamine.
Which one of the following is most consistent with this presentation?
- A. Increased thyrotropin (thyroid-stimulating hormone) level
- B. High plasma cortisol
- C. Elevated plasma catecholamines
- D. Low urinary metanephrines
- E. Low renal vein renin
Answer: C
Explanation:
This presentation is classic for an undiagnosed pheochromocytoma, which causes episodic or crisis-level hypertension due to excess catecholamines. Anesthesia or surgical manipulation can trigger massive catecholamine release, leading to hypertensive crisis. Phentolamine, an alpha-blocker, is the appropriate treatment.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Endocrinology, Pheochromocytoma:
"Pheochromocytomas may precipitate hypertensive crises during surgery. Elevated plasma catecholamines and urinary metanephrines confirm diagnosis." MCCQE1 Objectives - Internal Medicine > Endocrinology:
"Candidates should suspect pheochromocytoma in perioperative hypertensive crises and confirm with plasma or urine catecholamines/metanephrines." Low metanephrines (E) would argue against pheochromocytoma. TSH (A), cortisol (D), and renin (C) are unrelated to acute intraoperative hypertensive episodes of this nature.
NEW QUESTION # 71
You perform a literature search of journal articles on the effectiveness of a new antihypertensive for first-line treatment of people aged 35 to 50. You find reports of 4 good quality studies. Three of them show that statistically, the new drug is significantly more effective than the standard treatment, and one shows no difference. Before you conclude that the new antihypertensive is more effective in this group of patients, which one of the following concepts must be given consideration?
- A. The power of the studies
- B. Random error
- C. Publication bias
- D. Systematic error
- E. Information bias
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
Publication bias refers to the tendency for positive results to be published more often than negative or inconclusive ones. In your review, 3 of 4 studies show positive findings. However, studies showing no effect may not have been published, skewing your impression.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Public Health, Critical Appraisal:
"Publication bias can lead to overestimation of treatment efficacy. Systematic reviews must account for unpublished or negative findings." MCCQE1 Objectives - Preventive Medicine > Critical Appraisal:
"Candidates must recognize and account for biases such as publication bias in interpreting literature." Random error (A) and power (D) affect individual studies. Systematic and information biases (B, E) affect data quality, not publication trends.
NEW QUESTION # 72
An 18-year-old woman comes to the office because of fatigue. She tells you she is struggling in her first year of university. She mentions that she spends much of her time rewriting her notes and filing and organizing her study materials. She is doing all the work in her group assignments because she feels others cannot do the work to a high enough standard. She has abandoned all enjoyable activities and seems to be constantly working and worrying about her grades. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Major depressive disorder.
- B. Obsessive-compulsive disorder.
- C. Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder.
- D. Generalized anxiety disorder.
Answer: C
Explanation:
This patient exhibits perfectionism, preoccupation with order and control, and reluctance to delegate - classic features of obsessive-compulsive personality disorder (OCPD). Unlike OCD, there are no intrusive thoughts or compulsions; rather, behaviors are ego-syntonic.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry, Personality Disorders:
"OCPD is marked by perfectionism, rigidity, and preoccupation with productivity. It differs from OCD in lacking obsessions or compulsions." MCCQE1 Objectives - Psychiatry > Personality Disorders:
"Candidates must distinguish OCPD by traits of excessive perfectionism, control, and inflexibility, particularly when these interfere with functioning." Major depression (A) is marked by pervasive low mood, which is not reported. OCD (B) involves distressing obsessions and compulsions. GAD (C) is more generalized worry without the perfectionism and rigidity.
NEW QUESTION # 73
You performed a surgical procedure on a 32-year-old woman for a herniated disk that was causing neurologic impairment. At the 8-month follow-up visit, she has healed well; however, she requests a prescription renewal of her narcotic analgesics (hydromorphone). Her pharmacy confirms that the patient adheres to the dosage you prescribed, that she has not consulted other physicians, and that her behavior has always been respectful.
You think that she no longer requires narcotic analgesics. Which one of the following approaches is most helpful to the patient?
- A. Advise the provincial or territorial agency responsible for following patients who have potential substance use disorders.
- B. Change the patient's prescription from short-acting hydromorphone to once-daily methadone.
- C. Replace short-acting hydromorphone with transdermal fentanyl.
- D. Counsel the patient regarding substance use disorder and arrange follow-up with her family physician.
- E. Decline the renewal of further hydromorphone and discharge the patient.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The patient's pain is no longer medically justified for opioids, but there is no evidence of misuse. The most appropriate and supportive action is to explain concerns, provide education about opioid tapering or dependency, and transition care to her family physician for ongoing management.
Toronto Notes 2023 - ELOM, "Safe Prescribing and Opioid Stewardship" Section:
"When opioids are no longer indicated, engage the patient in a conversation about tapering and arrange appropriate follow-up. Coordinate care with primary providers when long-term management is needed." MCCQE1 Objectives (ELOM > 99-1: Professionalism and Substance Use):
"Candidates must address the risk of dependency, counsel the patient, and ensure a safe transition to appropriate care without abrupt termination." Methadone (E) and fentanyl (A) are for opioid use disorder or chronic pain, not for tapering in low-risk patients. Discharging the patient (B) or reporting (C) is punitive and unnecessary.
NEW QUESTION # 74
A 53-year-old man with a history of bipolar I disorder is brought to the office by his family. Recently, he has been sleeping for 4 to 5 hours per night, has been fidgety, and is increasinglypreoccupied with his granddaughter's safety. Five days ago, he consulted with your physician colleague and was instructed to exercise and meditate. Last night, he was found running in the street and attempted to hit a relative who was trying to calm him down. His son is dissatisfied with your physician colleague's management. Which one of the following is the most appropriate response?
- A. Acknowledge your physician colleague's mistake and apologize.
- B. Explain that you will now assess the father and that your goal is to treat him.
- C. Point out that exercise and meditation have been proven useful in managing bipolar I disorder.
- D. Share that you would have prescribed a medication after the first assessment.
- E. Encourage the son to file a complaint.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The most appropriate and professional response is to focus on the current clinical situation and reassure the family that you will take responsibility for assessment and treatment. Criticizing a colleague (A, B, E) or deflecting to generalities (D) is unprofessional and unhelpful in crisis management.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry, Physician-Patient-Family Communication:
"In emotionally charged or crisis situations, the physician must remain focused, empathetic, and professional.
Avoid blaming colleagues; instead, offer a concrete plan of care."
MCCQE1 Objectives - Psychiatry > Ethics and Professionalism:
"Candidates must demonstrate professionalism in managing conflicts, focusing on patient care while maintaining collegial respect."
NEW QUESTION # 75
A 94-year-old woman with severe dementia is referred for vaginal bleeding and a persistent foul odour from the vagina. She lives in a long-term care facility. She has been using a ring pessary for the past 15 years. Her current pessary has not been replaced in 2 years. On examination, there is moderate vaginal atrophy. After removing the pessary, which one of the following is the best next step?
- A. Start vaginal estrogen.
- B. Prescribe vaginal metronidazole gel.
- C. Perform a vaginal biopsy.
- D. Arrange for a hysteroscopy and endometrial biopsy.
- E. Wash the pessary and recommend a daily saline douche.
Answer: A
Explanation:
In elderly women with long-term pessary use and signs of vaginal atrophy (thin epithelium, bleeding, odor), local estrogen is the most appropriate initial treatment to restore the vaginal epithelium and reduce inflammation and discharge. Vaginal estrogen improves mucosal integrity and reduces complications like ulceration, infection, and bleeding.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Gynecology, "Pelvic Organ Prolapse and Pessary Care" Section:
"Local vaginal estrogen therapy is recommended for postmenopausal women with vaginal atrophy who are using pessaries. It reduces the risk of erosions, bleeding, and infection, especially when pessary follow-up has been suboptimal." MCCQE1 Objectives (Obstetrics and Gynecology > 82-9: Vaginal Bleeding in Postmenopausal Women):
"Candidates should recognize vaginal atrophy as a common and treatable cause of bleeding in elderly women using pessaries." A biopsy (E) may be needed if symptoms persist after atrophy is treated. Hysteroscopy (A) is invasive and not first-line in this setting. Metronidazole (B) is not indicated without evidence of bacterial vaginosis. Daily saline douching (D) is not recommended and may irritate atrophic mucosa.
NEW QUESTION # 76
A 60-year-old woman presents with a 7-day history of bloody diarrhea and diffuse mild abdominal tenderness. Stool tests (culture, ova/parasites) are negative. Which one of the following is the best next step?
- A. Order a diagnostic colonoscopy.
- B. Recommend symptomatic observation.
- C. Recommend a trial of loperamide.
- D. Prescribe tapered-dose steroids.
- E. Prescribe broad-spectrum antibiotics.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Persistent bloody diarrhea with negative stool cultures and ova/parasite testing in an older adult suggests inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) or another colitis such as ischemic or microscopic colitis. Colonoscopy is the best next diagnostic step to evaluate for ulcerative colitis, Crohn disease, ischemic colitis, or malignancy.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Gastroenterology, "Inflammatory Bowel Disease":
"Persistent bloody diarrhea with negative infectious work-up should prompt colonoscopic evaluation to rule out IBD or other forms of colitis." MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > Gastrointestinal > 47-1):
"Candidates must assess and investigate chronic or persistent diarrhea. In the presence of red flag features such as bleeding, weight loss, or anemia, colonoscopy is indicated." Antibiotics (A) are not indicated with negative stool cultures. Observation (C) and loperamide (D) risk delaying diagnosis. Steroids (E) may be required later but only after confirmation of diagnosis.
NEW QUESTION # 77
A surgical clinic would like to respond to the Truth and Reconciliation Commission of Canada: Calls to Action report. The clinic has implemented a mandatory cultural safety course for all employees and ongoing faculty development that includes teachings from Elders and Knowledge Keepers and teaching sessions about harm reduction, trauma-informed care, and antiracism. Which one of the following steps would further the clinic's goal of responding to this report?
- A. Include trauma disclosure on the clinic's intake form.
- B. Display the cultural safety certificate in the waiting room.
- C. Evaluate how the staff enjoyed the teaching session.
- D. Provide clinic information in the languages spoken by the community.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Providing information in the patient's own language is a concrete way to improve access, cultural safety, and communication - key recommendations in the Truth and Reconciliation Commission's Calls to Action. It moves beyond symbolic gestures and supports equitable care.
Toronto Notes 2023 - ELOM, "Indigenous Health and Cultural Safety" Section:
"Cultural safety includes removing language barriers, engaging with Elders, and using patient-centered practices that respect Indigenous values. Communication in the patient's first language improves trust and outcomes." MCCQE1 Objectives (ELOM > 99-2: Cultural Safety and Health Equity):
"Candidates must apply the principles of culturally safe care including removing barriers to access and effective communication, as highlighted in the Truth and Reconciliation Commission's Calls to Action." Evaluating session enjoyment (A) is not impactful. Certificates (C) are symbolic. Intake questions about trauma (D) must be done with appropriate context and safety - not as a formality.
NEW QUESTION # 78
A 38-year-old woman presents with diffuse nodularity in the outer upper quadrant of her right breast. There is no obvious dominant mass, nipple discharge, or skin dimpling. There are no palpable lymph nodes. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Mastitis
- B. Fibrocystic change
- C. Benign phyllodes tumour
- D. Intraductal carcinoma
- E. Paget disease
Answer: B
Explanation:
Fibrocystic change is the most common benign breast condition in women of reproductive age. It typically presents with diffuse nodularity or "lumpy" areas, especially in the upper outer quadrant, and varies with the menstrual cycle. No dominant mass or systemic signs are expected.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Gynecology, "Benign Breast Conditions":
"Fibrocystic changes often present with bilateral or unilateral nodularity, most commonly in the upper outer quadrants, without discrete masses." MCCQE1 Objectives (Gynecology > 81-1: Breast Conditions):
"Candidates must differentiate benign breast conditions from malignant ones based on presentation and physical exam findings." Paget disease (B) presents with nipple changes. Intraductal carcinoma (C) typically shows a discrete mass or suspicious features. Phyllodes tumours are usually well-circumscribed. Mastitis (E) is inflammatory and associated with erythema, fever, and tenderness.
NEW QUESTION # 79
A 44-year-old woman presents to the office to discuss contraception. During the gynecologic examination, you notice an anterior cystocele to the hymenal ring. The woman denies any bulge symptoms but does report dribbling of urine, especially when she coughs or jogs.
Which one of the following is the best next step?
- A. Topical estrogen
- B. No impact sports
- C. Urology consultation
- D. Vaginal hysterectomy
- E. Pelvic-floor physiotherapy
Answer: E
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
This patient has stress urinary incontinence and an incidental cystocele. First-line management of mild pelvic organ prolapse and stress incontinence includes pelvic floor physiotherapy (e.g., Kegel exercises). Surgical options are reserved for severe or refractory cases.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Gynecology, Pelvic Floor Disorders:
"For asymptomatic prolapse or mild stress incontinence, recommend pelvic floor strengthening. Conservative management is preferred before surgical referral." MCCQE1 Objectives - Gynecology > Urogynecology:
"Candidates should initiate pelvic floor therapy in women with mild prolapse or urinary leakage prior to specialist referral." Topical estrogen (B) helps with atrophic vaginitis, not stress incontinence. Hysterectomy (A) and specialist referral (C) are premature. Avoiding impact sports (E) is not a treatment.
NEW QUESTION # 80
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