Valid CS0-002 Practice Test Dumps with 100% Passing Guarantee [Dec-2025]
CS0-002 PDF Dumps Are Helpful To produce Your Dreams Correct QA's
The CySA+ certification is aimed at IT professionals who are looking to advance their career in the cybersecurity field. CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam certification is ideal for individuals who are interested in working in roles such as cybersecurity analyst, security engineer, or security consultant. CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam certification is also suitable for individuals who are responsible for ensuring the security of their organization's information systems and networks.
NEW QUESTION # 167
Approximately 100 employees at your company have received a phishing email. As a security analyst you have been tasked with handling this situation.
INSTRUCTIONS
Review the information provided and determine the following:
1. How many employees clicked on the link in the phishing email?
2. On how many workstations was the malware installed?
3. What is the executable file name or the malware?
Answer:
Explanation:
see the explanation.
Explanation
Select the following answer as per diagram below.
NEW QUESTION # 168
Which of the following systems or services is MOST likely to exhibit issues stemming from the Heartbleed vulnerability (Choose two.)
- A. SMB service
- B. Web servers
- C. Modbus devices
- D. IPSec VPN concentrators
- E. SSH daemons
- F. TLS VPN services
Answer: D,F
NEW QUESTION # 169
A current, validated DLP solution Is now in place because of a previous data breach However, a new data breach has taken place The following symptoms were observed shorty after a recent sales meeting:
* Sensitive corporate documents appeared on the dark web.
* Unusually large packets of data were being sent out.
Which of the following is most likely occurring?
- A. The DLP solution is not configured for unsecured web traffic
- B. File audits are not enabled on CASB.
- C. An insider threat is exfiltration data.
- D. Documents are not tagged properly to restrict sharing.
Answer: C
Explanation:
This is most likely occurring based on the symptoms observed after a recent sales meeting. An insider threat is a person who has legitimate access to an organization's network or data and uses it for malicious purposes, such as stealing, leaking, or sabotaging information. The symptoms suggest that someone from the sales team or someone who attended the meeting has copied sensitive corporate documents and uploaded them to the dark web using large data packets.
NEW QUESTION # 170
An organization is developing software to match customers' expectations. Before the software goes into production, it must meet the following quality assurance guidelines
* Uncover all the software vulnerabilities.
* Safeguard the interest of the software's end users.
* Reduce the likelihood that a defective program will enter production.
* Preserve the Interests of me software producer
Which of me following should be performed FIRST?
- A. Conduct a static analysis of the code.
- B. Document the life-cycle changes that look place.
- C. Store the source code in a software escrow.
- D. Run source code against the latest OWASP vulnerabilities.
- E. Ensure verification and vacation took place during each phase.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 171
Which of the following types of controls defines placing an ACL on a file folder?
- A. Technical control
- B. Operational control
- C. Confidentiality control
- D. Managerial control
Answer: A
Explanation:
"Technical controls enforce confidentiality, integrity, and availability in the digital space. Examples of technical security controls include firewall rules, access control lists, intrusion prevention systems, and encryption." A technical control is a type of control that uses technology or software to protect data and systems from unauthorized access or misuse3. A technical control can include encryption, authentication, firewalls, antivirus software, and other mechanisms that rely on hardware or software. Placing an ACL (access control list) on a file folder is an example of a technical control. An ACL is a list of permissions that specifies who can access or modify a file or folder4. An ACL can help to enforce confidentiality, integrity, and availability of data by restricting access to authorized users only.
NEW QUESTION # 172
A security technician is testing a solution that will prevent outside entities from spoofing the company's email domain, which is comptiA.org. The testing is successful, and the security technician is prepared to fully implement the solution.
Which of the following actions should the technician take to accomplish this task?
- A. Add TXT @ "v=spf1 mx include:_spf.comptiA.org +all" to the domain controller.
- B. Add TXT @ "v=spf1 mx include:_spf.comptiA.org +all" to the web server.
- C. Add TXT @ "v=spf1 mx include:_spf.comptiA.org −all" to the email server.
- D. Add TXT @ "v=spf1 mx include:_spf.comptiA.org −all" to the DNS record.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 173
A business recently acquired a software company. The software company's security posture is unknown. However, based on an assessment, there are limited security controls. No significant security monitoring exists. Which of the following is the NEXT step that should be completed to obtain information about the software company's security posture?
- A. Review relevant network drawings, diagrams and documentation
- B. Baseline the software company's network to determine the ports and protocols in use.
- C. Perform penetration tests against the software company's Internal and external networks
- D. Develop an asset inventory to determine the systems within the software company
Answer: D
Explanation:
An asset inventory is a list of all the hardware, software, data, and other resources that an organization owns or uses. An asset inventory helps to identify what systems are present in an organization, where they are located, what they do, and how they are configured2 Developing an asset inventory is the next step that should be completed to obtain information about the software company's security posture, as it provides a baseline for further analysis and assessment of the systems' vulnerabilities and risks.
NEW QUESTION # 174
The help desk is having difficulty keeping up with all onboarding and offboarding requests. Managers often submit, requests for new users at the last minute. causing the help desk to scramble to create accounts across many different Interconnected systems. Which of the following solutions would work BEST to assist the help desk with the onboarding and offboarding process while protecting the company's assets?
- A. CASB
- B. RBAC
- C. SSO
- D. MFA
Answer: B
Explanation:
RBAC (Role-Based Access Control) is a solution that would work best to assist the help desk with the onboarding and offboarding process while protecting the company's assets. RBAC is a method of granting access to resources based on the roles of users within an organization. RBAC simplifies the management of user permissions by assigning predefined roles to users based on their job functions, rather than granting individual permissions to each user. RBAC can help automate the onboarding and offboarding process by enabling the help desk to quickly create or delete user accounts and assign or revoke access rights based on the roles of the users1. RBAC can also help protect the company's assets by enforcing the principle of least privilege, which means that users only have access to the resources they need to perform their duties and nothing more2.
NEW QUESTION # 175
A security analyst needs to provide the development learn with secure connectivity from the corporate network to a three-tier cloud environment. The developers require access to servers in all three tiers in order to perform various configuration tasks. Which of the following technologies should the analyst implement to provide secure transport?
- A. CASB
- B. VPN
- C. VPC
- D. Federation
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 176
Susan has been asked to identify the applications that start when a Windows system does.
Where should she look first?
- A. The Registry
- B. Volume shadow copies
- C. The MFT
- D. INDX files
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 177
A security analyst has a sample of malicious software and needs to know what the sample does?
The analyst runs the sample in a carefully controlled and monitored virtual machine to observe the software behavior. Which of the following malware analysis approaches is this?
- A. White box testing
- B. Fuzzing
- C. Static code analysis
- D. Sandboxing
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 178
The threat intelligence department recently learned of an advanced persistent threat that is leveraging a new strain of malware, exploiting a system router. The company currently uses the same device
mentioned in the threat report. Which of the following configuration changes would BEST improve the organization's security posture?
- A. Implement an IDS rule that contains content for the malware variant and patch the routers to protect against the vulnerability
- B. Implement an IPS rule that contains content for the malware variant and patch the routers to protect against the vulnerability
- C. Implement an IDS rule that contains the IP addresses from the advanced persistent threat and patch the routers to protect against the vulnerability
- D. Implement an IPS rule that contains the IP addresses from the advanced persistent threat and patch the routers to protect against the vulnerability
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 179
A security analyst suspects a malware infection was caused by a user who downloaded malware after clicking
http://<malwaresource>/a.php in a phishing email.
To prevent other computers from being infected by the same malware variation, the analyst should create a rule on the.
- A. IDS to match the malware sample.
- B. email server that automatically deletes attached executables.
- C. proxy to block all connections to <malwaresource>.
- D. firewall to block connection attempts to dynamic DNS hosts.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 180
A security analyst has been alerted to several emails that show evidence an employee is planning malicious activities that involve employee PII on the network before leaving the organization. The security analyst's BEST response would be to coordinate with the legal department and:
- A. senior leadership
- B. the public relations department
- C. the human resources department
- D. law enforcement
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 181
A security analyst is investigating malicious traffic from an internal system that attempted to download proxy avoidance software as identified from the firewall logs but the destination IP is blocked and not captured. Which of the following should the analyst do?
- A. Determine if DNS logging is enabled.
- B. Capture live data using Wireshark
- C. Review the network logs.
- D. Shut down the computer
- E. Take a snapshot
Answer: A
Explanation:
The DNS debug log provides extremely detailed data about all DNS information that is sent and received by the DNS server, similar to the data that can be gathered using packet capture tools such as network monitor. https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/previous-versions/windows/it-pro/windows-server-2012-r2-and-2012/dn800669(v=ws.11)#:~:text=The%20DNS%20debug%20log%20provides,tools%20such%20as%20network%20monitor.
NEW QUESTION # 182
A security analyst was transferred to an organization's threat-hunting team to track specific activity throughout the enterprise environment The analyst must observe and assess the number ot times this activity occurs and aggregate the results. Which of the following is the BEST threat-hunting method for the analyst to use?
- A. Clustering
- B. Grouping
- C. Stack counting
- D. Searching
Answer: C
Explanation:
Stack counting is the best threat-hunting method for the analyst to use to observe and assess the number of times a specific activity occurs and aggregate the results. Stack counting is a technique that involves collecting data from multiple sources, such as logs, events, or alerts, and grouping them by a common attribute, such as an IP address, a user name, or a process name. Stack counting can help identify patterns, trends, outliers, or anomalies in the data that may indicate malicious activity or compromise.
NEW QUESTION # 183
A security is responding to an incident on a web server on the company network that is making a large number of outbound requests over DNS. Which of the following is the FIRST step the analyst should take to evaluate this potential indicator of compromise?
- A. Reimage the machine to remove the threat completely and get back to a normal running state
- B. Run an anti-malware scan on the system to detect and eradicate the current threat
- C. Shut down the system to prevent further degradation of the company network
- D. Isolate the system on the network to ensure it cannot access other systems while evaluation is underway
- E. Start a network capture on the system to look into the DNS requests to validate command and control traffic
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
NEW QUESTION # 184
A monthly job to install approved vendor software updates and hot fixes recently stopped working. The security team performed a vulnerability scan, which identified several hosts as having some critical OS vulnerabilities, as referenced in the common vulnerabilities and exposures (CVE) database.
Which of the following should the security team do NEXT to resolve the critical findings in the most effective manner? (Choose two.)
- A. Tag the computers with critical findings as a business risk acceptance.
- B. Patch the required hosts with the correct updates and hot fixes, and rescan them for vulnerabilities.
- C. Resolve the monthly job issues and test them before applying them to the production network.
- D. Manually patch the computers on the network, as recommended on the CVE website.
- E. Remove the servers reported to have high and medium vulnerabilities.
- F. Harden the hosts on the network, as recommended by the NIST framework.
Answer: B,E
NEW QUESTION # 185
A security is reviewing a vulnerability scan report and notes the following finding:
As part of the detection and analysis procedures, which of the following should the analyst do NEXT?
- A. Restart the antiviruses running processes
- B. Confirm the workstation's signatures against the most current signatures.
- C. Isolate the host from the network to prevent exposure
- D. Patch or reimage the device to complete the recovery
Answer: B
Explanation:
The vulnerability scan report shows that the workstation has a high-risk vulnerability (CVE-2019-0708) that affects Remote Desktop Services on Windows systems. This vulnerability allows remote code execution without authentication or user interaction, and can be exploited by sending specially crafted requests to the target system1 As part of the detection and analysis procedures, the analyst should confirm the workstation's signatures against the most current signatures. This can help verify if the workstation has been patched or updated to address the vulnerability, or if it is still vulnerable and needs remediation. The analyst can use tools such as Windows Update or Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer to check the workstation's patch level and compare it with the latest available signatures.
NEW QUESTION # 186
A development team recently released a new version of a public-facing website for testing prior to production. The development team is soliciting the help of various teams to validate the functionality of the website due to its high visibility. Which of the following activities best describes the process the development team is initiating?
- A. Stress testing
- B. Static analysis
- C. User acceptance testing
- D. Code review
Answer: C
Explanation:
User acceptance testing is a process of verifying that a software application meets the requirements and expectations of the end users before it is released to production. User acceptance testing can help to validate the functionality, usability, performance and compatibility of the software application with real-world scenarios and feedback . User acceptance testing can involve various teams, such as developers, testers, customers and stakeholders.
NEW QUESTION # 187
While preparing of an audit of information security controls in the environment an analyst outlines a framework control that has the following requirements:
* All sensitive data must be classified
* All sensitive data must be purged on a quarterly basis
* Certificates of disposal must remain on file for at least three years This framework control is MOST likely classified as:
- A. prescriptive
- B. risk-based
- C. preventive
- D. corrective
Answer: A
Explanation:
prescrcriptiveitive. now look at definition of prescriptive. The definition of prescriptive is the imposition of rules, or something that has become established because it has been going on a long time and has become customary. A handbook dictating the rules for proper behavior is an example of something that would be described as a prescriptive handbookules are being implimented.
Preventative controls describe any security measure that's designed to stop unwanted or unauthorized activity from occurring. Examples include physical controls such as fences, locks, and alarm systems; technical controls such as antivirus software, firewalls, and IPSs; and administrative controls like separation of duties, data classification, and auditing. https://www.f5.com/labs/articles/education/what-are-security-controls
NEW QUESTION # 188
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