Latest Dec-2021 ISACA CISA Dumps Updated 973 Questions
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Prerequisites
The main requirement for earning the CISA certification is to pass one test. However, before you can take it, you are required to have at least five years of practical experience in the field of information security and information technology audit. The candidates should also have experience with control, assurance, and security. If you don’t have up to five years, you can also complete the exam with a minimum of two years of hands-on experience in the domain of the qualifying test.
NEW QUESTION 524
Which of the following controls will MOST effectively detect the presence of bursts of errors in network transmissions?
- A. Parity check
- B. Echo check
- C. Cyclic redundancy check
- D. Block sum check
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The cyclic redundancy check (CRC) can check for a block of transmitted data. The workstations generate the CRC and transmit it with the data. The receiving workstation computes a CRC and compares it to the transmitted CRC. if both of them are equal.then the block is assumed error free, in this case (such as in parity error or echo check), multiple errors can be detected. In general, CRC can detect all single-bit and bubble-bit errors. Parity check (known as vertical redundancy check) also involves adding a bit (known as the parity bit) to each character during transmission. In this case, where there is a presence of bursts of errors (i.e., impulsing noise during high transmission rates), it has a reliability of approximately 50 percent.
In higher transmission rates, this limitation is significant. Echo checks detect line errors by retransmitting data to the sending device for comparison with the original transmission.
NEW QUESTION 525
Which of the following IT governance best practices improves strategic alignment?
- A. A knowledge base on customers, products, markets and processes is in place.
- B. A structure is provided that facilitates the creation and sharing of business information.
- C. Top management mediate between the imperatives of business and technology.
- D. Supplier and partner risks are managed.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Top management mediating between the imperatives of business and technology is an IT strategic alignment best practice. Supplier and partner risks being managed is a risk management best practice. A knowledge base on customers, products, markets andprocesses being in place is an IT value delivery best practice. An infrastructure being provided to facilitate the creation and sharing of business information is an IT value delivery and risk management best practice.
NEW QUESTION 526
Which of the following fire-suppression methods is considered to be the most environmentally friendly?
- A. Dry-pipe sprinklers
- B. Wet-pipe sprinklers
- C. Deluge sprinklers
- D. Halon gas
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Although many methods of fire suppression exist, dry-pipe sprinklers are considered to be the most environmentally friendly.
NEW QUESTION 527
.Which of the following can help detect transmission errors by appending specially calculated bits onto the end of each segment of data?
- A. Parity check
- B. Completeness check
- C. Accuracy check
- D. Redundancy check
Answer: D
Explanation:
A redundancy check can help detect transmission errors by appending especially calculated bits onto the end of each segment of datA .
NEW QUESTION 528
Which of the following is the MOST important function to be performed by IS management when a service has been outsourced?
- A. Renegotiating the provider's fees
- B. Participating in systems design with the provider
- C. Monitoring the outsourcing provider's performance
- D. Ensuring that invoices are paid to the provider
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In an outsourcing environment, the company is dependent on the performance of the service provider.
Therefore, it is critical the outsourcing provider's performance be monitored to ensure that services are delivered to the company as required. Payment of invoices is a finance function, which would be completed per contractual requirements. Participating in systems design is a byproduct of monitoring the outsourcing provider's performance, while renegotiating fees is usually a one-time activity.
NEW QUESTION 529
The GREATEST benefit in implementing an expert system is the:
- A. capturing of the knowledge and experience of individuals in an organization.
- B. enhancement of personnel productivity and performance.
- C. sharing of knowledge in a central repository.
- D. reduction of employee turnover in key departments.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
Explanation:
The basis for an expert system is the capture and recording of the knowledge and experience of individuals
in an organization. Coding and entering the knowledge in a central repository, shareable within the
enterprise, is a means of facilitating the expert system. Enhancing personnel productivity and performance
is a benefit; however, it is not as important as capturing the knowledge and experience. Employee turnover
is not necessarily affected by an expert system.
NEW QUESTION 530
Which of the following BEST describes the role of a directory server in a public key infrastructure (PKI)?
- A. Makes other users' certificates available to applications
- B. Encrypts the information transmitted over the network
- C. Facilitates the implementation of a password policy
- D. Stores certificate revocation lists (CRLs)
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
Explanation:
A directory server makes other users' certificates available to applications. Encrypting the information
transmitted over the network and storing certificate revocation lists (CRLs) are roles performed by a
security server. Facilitating the implementation of a password policy is not relevant to public key
infrastructure (PKl).
NEW QUESTION 531
The PRIMARY purpose for meeting with auditees prior to formally closing a review is to:
- A. gain agreement on the findings.
- B. receive feedback on the adequacy of the audit procedures.
- C. test the structure of the final presentation.
- D. confirm that the auditors did not overlook any important issues.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
Explanation:
The primary purpose for meeting with auditees prior to formally closing a review is to gain agreement on the findings. The other choices, though related to the formal closure of an audit, are of secondary importance.
NEW QUESTION 532
Which of the following has the GREATEST influence on the success of IT governance?
- A. Alignment of IT strategies with the entity's vision
- B. IT strategy is embedded in all risk management processes
- C. The CIO is a member of the audit committee
- D. Clear, concise, and enforced IS policies
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 533
Which of the following concerns is BEST addressed by securing production source libraries?
- A. Production source and object libraries may not be synchronized.
- B. Programs are not approved before production source libraries are updated.
- C. Unauthorized changes can be moved into production.
- D. Changes are applied to the wrong version of production source libraries.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 534
An IS auditor is evaluating networked devices at one of the organization's branch locations. Which of the following observations should be of GREATEST concern?
- A. A local executive has a wireless-enabled fish tank connected to the corporate network.
- B. Company laptops with built-in cameras are observed with opaque tape blocking the cameras.
- C. Personal devices are required to connect wirelessly to a guest network.
- D. Four personal laptops with default passwords are connected to the corporate network.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 535
A digital signature contains a message digest to:
- A. enable message transmission in a digital format.
- B. show if the message has been altered after transmission.
- C. define the encryption algorithm.
- D. confirm the identity of the originator.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
Explanation:
The message digest is calculated and included in a digital signature to prove that the message has not been altered. It should be the same value as a recalculation performed upon receipt. It does not define the algorithm or enable the transmission in digital format and has no effect on the identity of the user; it is there to ensure integrity rather than identity.
NEW QUESTION 536
An IS auditor is asked to identify risk within an organization's software development project. The project manager tells the auditor that an agile development methodology is being used to minimize the lengthy development process. Which of the following would be of GREATEST concern to the auditor?
- A. The needed work has not yet been fully identified.
- B. Elements of the project have not been documented.
- C. Each team does its own testing.
- D. Some of the developers have not attended recent training.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
NEW QUESTION 537
The drives of a tile server are backed up at a hot site. Which of the following is the BEST way to duplicate the files stored on the server for forensic analysis?
- A. Replicate the server's volatile data to another drive.
D18912E1457D5D1DDCBD40AB3BF70D5D - B. Capture a bit-by-bit image of the file server's drives.
- C. Create a logical copy of the file server's drives.
- D. Run forensic analysis software on the backup drive.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 538
Which of the following security control is intended to bring environment back to regular operation?
- A. Preventive
- B. Recovery
- C. Deterrent
- D. Corrective
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: The process of Auditing Information System
Explanation:
Recovery controls are intended to bring the environment back to regular operations
For your exam you should know below information about different security controls
Deterrent Controls
Deterrent Controls are intended to discourage a potential attacker. Access controls act as a deterrent to
threats and attacks by the simple fact that the existence of the control is enough to keep some potential
attackers from attempting to circumvent the control. This is often because the effort required to circumvent
the control is far greater than the potential reward if the attacker is successful, or, conversely, the negative
implications of a failed attack (or getting caught) outweigh the benefits of success. For example, by forcing
the identification and authentication of a user, service, or application, and all that it implies, the potential for
incidents associated with the system is significantly reduced because an attacker will fear association with
the incident. If there are no controls for a given access path, the number of incidents and the potential
impact become infinite. Controls inherently reduce exposure to risk by applying oversight for a process.
This oversight acts as a deterrent, curbing an attacker's appetite in the face of probable repercussions.
The best example of a deterrent control is demonstrated by employees and their propensity to intentionally
perform unauthorized functions, leading to unwanted events.
When users begin to understand that by authenticating into a system to perform a function, their activities
are logged and monitored, and it reduces the likelihood they will attempt such an action. Many threats are
based on the anonymity of the threat agent, and any potential for identification and association with their
actions is avoided at all costs.
It is this fundamental reason why access controls are the key target of circumvention by attackers.
Deterrents also take the form of potential punishment if users do something unauthorized. For example, if
the organization policy specifies that an employee installing an unauthorized wireless access point will be
fired, that will determine most employees from installing wireless access points.
Preventative Controls
Preventive controls are intended to avoid an incident from occurring. Preventative access controls keep a
user from performing some activity or function. Preventative controls differ from deterrent controls in that
the control is not optional and cannot (easily) be bypassed. Deterrent controls work on the theory that it is
easier to obey the control
rather than to risk the consequences of bypassing the control. In other words, the power for action resides
with the user (or the attacker). Preventative controls place the power of action with the system, obeying the
control is not optional. The only way to bypass the control is to find a flaw in the control's implementation.
Compensating Controls
Compensating controls are introduced when the existing capabilities of a system do not support the
requirement of a policy. Compensating controls can be technical, procedural, or managerial. Although an
existing system may not support the required controls, there may exist other technology or processes that
can supplement the existing environment, closing the gap in controls, meeting policy requirements, and
reducing overall risk.
For example, the access control policy may state that the authentication process must be encrypted when
performed over the Internet. Adjusting an application to natively support encryption for authentication
purposes may be too costly. Secure Socket Layer (SSL), an encryption protocol, can be employed and
layered on top of the authentication process to support the policy statement.
Other examples include a separation of duties environment, which offers the capability to isolate certain
tasks to compensate for technical limitations in the system and ensure the security of transactions. In
addition, management processes, such as authorization, supervision, and administration, can be used to
compensate for gaps in the access control environment.
Detective Controls
Detective controls warn when something has happened, and are the earliest point in the post-incident
timeline. Access controls are a deterrent to threats and can be aggressively utilized to prevent harmful
incidents through the application of least privilege. However, the detective nature of access controls can
provide significant visibility into the access environment and help organizations manage their access
strategy and related security risk.
As mentioned previously, strongly managed access privileges provided to an authenticated user offer the
ability to reduce the risk exposure of the enterprise's assets by limiting the capabilities that authenticated
user has. However, there are few options to control what a user can perform once privileges are provided.
For example, if a user is provided write access to a file and that file is damaged, altered, or otherwise
negatively impacted (either deliberately or unintentionally), the use of applied access controls will offer
visibility into the transaction. The control environment can be established to log activity regarding the
identification, authentication, authorization, and use of privileges on a system.
This can be used to detect the occurrence of errors, the attempts to perform an unauthorized action, or to
validate when provided credentials were exercised. The logging system as a detective device provides
evidence of actions (both successful and unsuccessful) and tasks that were executed by authorized users.
Corrective Controls
When a security incident occurs, elements within the security infrastructure may require corrective actions.
Corrective controls are actions that seek to alter the security posture of an environment to correct any
deficiencies and return the environment to a secure state. A security incident signals the failure of one or
more directive, deterrent, preventative, or compensating controls. The detective controls may have
triggered an alarm or notification, but now the corrective controls must work to stop the incident in its
tracks. Corrective controls can take many forms, all depending on the particular situation at hand or the
particular security failure that needs to be dealt with.
Recovery Controls
Any changes to the access control environment, whether in the face of a security incident or to offer
temporary compensating controls, need to be accurately reinstated and returned to normal operations.
There are several situations that may affect access controls, their applicability, status, or management.
Events can include system outages, attacks, project changes, technical demands, administrative gaps, and
full-blown disaster situations. For example, if an application is not correctly installed or deployed, it may
adversely affect controls placed on system files or even have default administrative accounts unknowingly
implemented upon install.
Additionally, an employee may be transferred, quit, or be on temporary leave that may affect policy
requirements regarding separation of duties. An attack on systems may have resulted in the implantation of
a Trojan horse program, potentially exposing private user information, such as credit card information and
financial data. In all of these cases, an undesirable situation must be rectified as quickly as possible and
controls returned to normal operations.
The following answers are incorrect:
Deterrent - Deterrent controls are intended to discourage a potential attacker
Preventive - Preventive controls are intended to avoid an incident from occurring
Corrective - Corrective control fixes components or systems after an incident has occurred
The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:
CISA Review Manual 2014 Page number 44
and
Official ISC2 CISSP guide 3rd edition Page number 50 and 51
NEW QUESTION 539
An IS auditor is performing an audit of a remotely managed server backup. The IS auditor reviews the logs for one day and finds one case where logging on a server has failed with the result that backup restarts cannot be confirmed. What should the auditor do?
- A. Seek an explanation from IS management
- B. Expand the sample of logs reviewed
- C. Review the classifications of data held on the server
- D. Issue an audit finding
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Audit standards require that an IS auditor gather sufficient and appropriate audit evidence. The auditor has found a potential problem and now needs to determine if this is an isolated incident or a systematic control failure. At this stage it is too preliminary to issue an audit finding and seeking an explanation from management is advisable, but it would be better to gather additional evidence to properly evaluate the seriousness of the situation. A backup failure, which has not been established at this point, will be serious if it involves critical datA. However, the issue is not the importance of the data on the server, where a problem has been detected, but whether a systematic control failure that impacts other servers exists.
NEW QUESTION 540
Which of the following should an IS auditor use to detect duplicate invoice records within an invoice master file?
- A. Integrated test facility (ITF)
- B. Attribute sampling
- C. Generalized audit software (GAS)
- D. Test data
Answer: C
Explanation:
Generalized audit software (GAS) would enable the auditor to review the entire invoice file to look for those items that meet the selection criteriA . Attribute sampling would aid in identifying records meeting specific conditions, but would not compare one record to another to identify duplicates. To detect duplicate invoice records the IS auditor should check all of the items that meet the criteria and not just a sample of the items. Test data are used to verify program processing, but will notidentify duplicate records. An integrated test facility (ITF) allows the IS auditor to test transactions through the production system, but would not compare records to identify duplicates.
NEW QUESTION 541
While reviewing a hot site, the IS auditor discovers that one type of hardware platform is not installed. The
IS auditor should FIRST:
- A. establish the lead time for delivery of a new machine.
- B. report the finding immediately to senior IS management.
- C. recommend the purchase and installation of hardware at the hot site.
- D. determine the business impact of the absence of the hardware.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: The process of Auditing Information System
NEW QUESTION 542
An organization having a number of offices across a wide geographical area has developed a disaster recovery plan (DRP). Using actual resources, which of the following is the MOST costeffective test of the DRP?
- A. Paper test
- B. Preparedness test
- C. Regression test
- D. Full operational test
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A preparedness test is performed by each local office/area to test the adequacy of the preparedness of local operations for the disaster recovery.
Incorrect answers:
A. A full operational test is conducted after the paper and preparedness test.
C. A paper test is a structured walkthrough of the DRP and should be conducted before a preparedness test.
D. A regression test is not a DRP test and is used in software maintenance.
NEW QUESTION 543
Which of the following is the MOST important requirement for an IS auditor to evaluate when reviewing a transmission of personally identifiable information between two organizations?
- A. Accuracy
- B. Timeliness
- C. Necessity
- D. Completeness
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 544
The MAJOR consideration for an IS auditor reviewing an organization's IT project portfolio is the:
- A. investment plan.
- B. business plan.
- C. IT budget.
- D. existing IT environment.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
One of the most important reasons for which projects get funded is how well a project meets an organization's strategic objectives. Portfolio management takes a holistic view of a company's overall IT strategy. IT strategy should be aligned with the business strategy and, hence, reviewing the business plan should be the major consideration. Choices A, B and D are important but secondary to the importance of reviewing the business plan.
NEW QUESTION 545
An IS auditor is reviewing a contract for the outsourcing of IT facilities. If missing, which of the following should present the GREATEST concern to the auditor?
- A. Access control requirements
- B. Hardware configurations
- C. Perimeter network security diagram
- D. Help desk availability
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 546
An organization plans to launch a social media presence as part of a new customer service campaign. Which of the following is the MOST significant risk from the perspective of potential litigation?
- A. Access to corporate-sponsored social media accounts requires only single-factor authentication.
- B. Approved employees can use personal devices to post on the company $ behalf
- C. There is a lack of dear procedures for responding to customers on social media outlets
- D. The policy stating what employees can post on the organization s behalf is unclear.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 547
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